CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2023-24 SET 2

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2023-24 SET 2

CBSE-Class-10-Social-Science-Question-Paper-2023-24-Download



Series BBCA2/2
Question Paper Code 32/1/1 Set 1


SOCIAL SCIENCE
(Session 2023-24)

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions : Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into SIX sections – Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
(iii) Section A - Question number 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B - Question number 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
(v) Section C - Question number 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
(vi) Section D - Question number 30 to 33 are Long Answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
(vii) Section E - Question number 34 to 36 are Case-based/Source-based questions with three sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(viii) Section F - Question number 37 is Map Skill based question with two parts - 37(a) from History (2 marks) and 37(b) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.
(ix) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, Map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired Candidates only.

SECTION - A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (20X1=20 Marks)

1. The German philosopher ‘Johann Gottfried’ belonged to which one of the following schools of thought ?
(a) Socialist
(b) Liberalist
(c) Romanticist
(d) Marxist

2. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : ‘The Act of Union 1707’ between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
Reason (R) : England wanted to impose its influence on Scotland.
Options :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explaination of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explaination of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

3 Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option.
I. Treaty of Constantinople
II. Hamburg granted autonomy to Hungary
III. Balkan Conflict
IV. Napoleonic Civil Code
Options :
(a) IV, II, I & III
(b) III, II, IV & I
(c) IV, I, II & III
(d) I, IV, III & II

4 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
List-I List-II
(Author)         (Book)
(a) Jyotiba Phule Amar Jiban
(b) Sudarshan Chakra         Sachhi Kavitayen
(c) Rash Sundari Debi         Gulamgiri
(d) Kashi Baba Chotte aur Bade Sawal

5 Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
Non Metallic Mineral : Mica
Energy Mineral : _____
(a) Natural Gas
(b) Bauxite
(c) Manganese
(d) Platinum

6 Read the following characteristics of a soil and identify the soil from the given options.
It is widely spread and important soil.
Northern plains are made of it.
It consists of sand, silt and clay.
Options :
(a) Yellow soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Alluvial soil

7 Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I Column-II
(Crop) (Type)
I. Wheat         a. Millet Crop
II. Ragi b. Beverage Crop
III. Tea c. Food Crop
IV. Maize d. Food & Fodder Crop
Options :
-image-

8 Read the following statements and choose the correct term mentioned in the Indian Constitution from the given options :
There is no official religion for the Indian State.
There is freedom to profess, practise and propagate any religion in India.
Options :
(a) Republic
(b) Sovereign
(c) Socialist
(d) Secular

9 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(Subject List in the Indian (Subject)
Constitution)
(a) Union List Subjects - Communication
(b) State List Subjects - Education
(c) Concurrent List Subjects - Adoption
(d) Residuary Subjects - Marriages

10 Read the following statements about power sharing arrangement in Belgium and choose the correct option.
I. Brussels has a separate govt. with equal representation.
II. Dutch & French speaking ministers are equal in Central Govt.
III. Community Govt. is elected by People belonging to one language.
IV. Series of majoritarian measures adopted in Belgium.
Options :
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and III

11 Which one of the following countries has ‘one-party system’ ?
(a) United States of America
(b) United Kingdom
(c) India
(d) China

12 Which one of the following is a fundamental principle of democracy ?
(a) Rule of single individual
(b) Rule with hereditary norms
(c) Rule of people with freedom
(d) Rule of military chiefs

13 Which one of the following languages is included in Eighth Schedule in Indian Constitution ?
(a) Hariyanavi
(b) Rajasthani
(c) Garhwali
(d) Odia

14 Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
Literacy Rate measures the proportion of literate population in the _____ years and above age group.
(a) 10
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 8

15 Assume there are four families in a locality. If the incomes of these four families in a week are ` 2,000, ` 5,000, ` 3,000 and ` 6,000, then the weekly average income of the locality will be -
(A) Rs 4,000
(B) Rs 5,000
(C) Rs 2,000
(D) Rs 1,000

16. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(Sector of the Economy) (Example)
(A) Primary Sector - Tailor
(B) Secondary Sector - Fisherman
(C) Tertiary Sector - Astronaut
(D) Primary Sector - Courier

17. Look at the given image. The work done in the image comes under which one of the following sectors ?
CBSE-Class-10-Social-Science-Question-Paper-2023-24-SET-2

(a) Organized sector
(b) Primary sector
(c) Unorganized sector
(d) Public sector
Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of question no. 17.
Which one of the following enterprises belongs to the organized sector ?
(a) Independent Freelancers
(b) Multinational Corporations
(c) Street Vendors
(d) Cottage Industries

18. Which of the following is the primary purpose of loan activities offered by banks ?
(a) To compete with other financial institutions
(b) To generate profits for the primary sector only
(c) To increase income of MNCs
(d) To support economic growth

19. Match the following aspects of globalization with their descriptions and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(Global Aspect) (Description)
I. Technological a. Interaction of ideas,
Advancement         values and traditions
II. Liberalization of Trade b. Companies operating in
many countries
III. Cultural Exchange         c. Innovation in
manufacturing,
communication and
information
IV. Multinational d. The removal of
Corporations         restriction on trade
Options :
-image-

20. Choose the correct option regarding ‘Body Mass Index’ (BMI) from the following.
(a) Assessment of Blood Pressure
(b) Assessment of Blood Sugar Level
(c) Assessment of Body Composition
(d) Assessment of under Nutrition

SECTION - B
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4X2=8 Marks)

21. “Conservative regimes set up in Europe in 1815 were autocratic.” Support the statement by giving any two arguments.

22. How is horizontal power sharing different from vertical ? Explain.

23. (a) Differentiate between Primitive Subsistence and Commercial Farming.
OR
(b) Differentiate between Rabi and Kharif cropping seasons.

24. How can a nation achieve a balance between economic growth and environment sustainability ? Explain by giving any two arguments.

SECTION - C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (5x3 = 15)

25. (a) How was the ‘Silk Route’ an example of vibrant pre-modern trade ? Explain.
OR
(b) How did food promote long-distance cultural contacts in the pre-modern world ? Explain.

26. “India’s prosperity lies in expanding and diversifying its manufacturing industries.” Justify the statement.

27. Explain any three responsibilities carried out by the political parties in a democracy.

28. Examine the significance of credit in economic development of the country.

29. “Tertiary sector has a pivotal role in the economy of the country.” Support your answer with day-to-day examples.

SECTION - D
(Long Answer Type Questions) (4x5 = 20)

30. (a) “The Gandhian idea of Satyagraha, emphasized the power of truth and struggle against injustice.” Explain the statement with examples.
OR
(b) How did people belonging to different communities, regions and language groups develop a sense of collective belonging in the late nineteenth century India ? Explain with examples.

31. (a) “Promotion of energy conservation is important plank of sustainable energy.” Explain the statement with examples.
OR
(b) “Energy is required for all kinds of activities.” Explain this statement with examples.

32. (a) Democracy is a better form of govt. than dictatorship. Analyse.
OR
(b) Democracy accommodates social diversities. Analyse.

33. (a) “Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalisation process.” Explain the statement with examples.
OR
(b) “Foreign trade and foreign investment policies are the aspects of liberalisation and globalisation.” Explain the statement with examples.

SECTION - E
(Case-based/Source-based Questions) (3x4 = 12)

34. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow :
Print and Censorship
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
During the First World War, under the Defense of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defense of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India Movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.
34.1 What method did the colonial government employ to keep track of Indian newspapers ?
34.2 How did the colonial government’s laws affect the press ?
34.3 Analyse the impact of ‘Sedition Committee’ on Newspapers.

35. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow :
Project Tiger
Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the authorities realized that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the 20th century. The major threats to tiger population are numerous, such as poaching for trade, shrinking habitat, depletion of prey base species, growing human population, etc. The trade of tiger skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in the Asian countries left the tiger population on the verge of extinction. Since India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population in the world, these two nations become prime targets for poaching and illegal trading.
“Project Tiger”, one of the well publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in 1973. Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some examples of the tiger reserves in India.
35.1 Why was ‘Project Tiger’ considered a significant step for Tiger Conservation ?
35.2 What role did India play in the global tiger population ?
35.3 Mention any two major threats to the wildlife species.

36. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow :
Linguistic diversity of India
How many languages do we have in India ? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example, languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these, 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.
36.1 How many languages were recorded as mother tongues in the 2011 Census of India ?
36.2 How were the languages grouped together in the Census report ?
36.3 How does the inclusion of languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contribute to linguistic diversity ? Explain.

SECTION - F
(Map Skill Based Questions) (2+3 = 5)

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
(i) The place where Gandhiji broke Salt Law.
(ii) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1920.
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) Salal - Dam
(ii) Kalpakkam - Nuclear Power Plant
(iii) Bengaluru - Software Technology Park
(iv) Mormugao - Major Sea Port

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 37.
Attempt any five questions :
37.1 Name the place where Gandhiji broke Salt Law.
37.2 Name the place where Indian National Congress Session was held in 1920.
37.3 Name the State where Tehri dam is located.
37.4 Name the State where Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is located.
37.5 Name the State where Mormugao Sea Port is located.
37.6 Name the State where Bengaluru Software Technology Park is located.
CBSE-Class-10-Social-Science-Question-Paper-2023-24-SET-2



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